Question # 1 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of an oropharyngeal airway?

A) the patient has vomited
B) the patient is unconscious
C) the patient has tongue lacerations
D) the patient has a gag reflex

Question # 2 (Multiple Choice) An adult patient who is breathing at a rate of 6 breaths per minute needs to be cared for by:

A) providing positive pressure ventilation with 100% oxygen
B) providing high concentration oxygen by a nonrebreather mask
C) beginning a cycle of chest compressions
D) monitoring respirations only

Question # 3 (Multiple Choice) You are assessing a patient's respiration's. You find that the respiration's are 18, normal, and regular. The word "normal" is used to reflect

A) the quality of the respiration
B) the time of the respiration's
C) the rate of the respiration's
D) the rhythm of the respiration's

Question # 4 (Multiple Choice) The use of accessory muscles and nasal flaring are all signs of

A) normal breathing
B) labored breathing
C) shallow breathing
D) noisy breathing

Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Lack of oxygen in blood cells and tissues resulting from inadequate breathing or heart function will cause the skin to be:

A) yellow
B) cyanotic
C) red
D) jaundiced

Question # 6 (Multiple Choice) A teenage girl is suspected of a drug overdose. As you approach her, you see she is lying on her back and you can hear gurgling respiration's. This gurgling is most likely being caused by:

A) fluid or vomitus in her upper airway
B) her tongue blocking her nasal airway. her tongue blocking her nasal airway
C) the drugs going into her lungs instead of her stomach
D) a complete obstruction of her trachea, preventing air movement to her lungs

Question # 7 (Multiple Choice) You are called to a less savory neighborhood for a "man down" on the sidewalk. You find a male patient, approximately 50 years old, shabbily dressed, unshaven and has a variety of strong odors emitting from him. The strongest aroma is alcohol. There are no obvious signs of injury. Bystanders can only say he has been lying there for quite awhile. Which of the following statements about him is not true

A) he is in imminent danger of airway obstruction
B) he should receive oral glucose
C) he is drunk and needs no specific treatment
D) he is at risk for aspiration pneumonia

Question # 8 (Multiple Choice) Your patient is a conscious but slightly drowsy 16-year-old female. She states she swallowed an unknown number of sleeping pills. You should ask all of the following questions EXCEPT

A) "Who gave you the pills?"
B) "Has anyone tried to treat you with anything?"
C) "How much do you weigh?"
D) "Over how long a period did you take the pills?"

Question # 9 (Multiple Choice) You suspect that your nearly unconscious male patient has ingested sleeping pills and alcohol. He is breathing inadequately. You should immediately

A) give oxygen by nasal cannula
B) administer activated charcoal
C) administer syrup of ipecac.
D) manage the airway

Question # 10 (Multiple Choice) Your 49 year old male patient is sleepy and suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning. Your treatment includes:

A) asking the patient to breathe into a paper bag
B) administering oxygen
C) administering activated charcoal
D) administering oral glucose

Question # 11 (Multiple Choice) A 20-year-old patient appears dazed and seems to have lost contact with reality. The mucous membranes of his nose and mouth are swollen. He complains of a "funny numb feeling" inside his head. This patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of drug abuse, most likely from

A) uppers
B) downers
C) hallucinogens
D) volatile chemicals

Question # 12 (Multiple Choice) Altered mental status is less likely to be caused by which one

A) drug overdose
B) low blood sugar
C) head trauma
D) chest pain

Question # 13 (Multiple Choice) Your patient is a 13-year-old female. Witnesses tell you her behavior changed suddenly. She has sweaty skin and complains of feeling hungry. Of the following, she is most likely to be suffering a/an:

A) diabetic emergency
B) cardiac emergency
C) respiratory emergency
D) allergic reaction

Question # 14 (Multiple Choice) Which areas of the spine are most susceptible to injury?

A) cervical and sacral
B) thoracic and thoracic
C) cervical and lumbar
D) cervical and coccyx

Question # 15 (Multiple Choice) Applying an improperly sized rigid cervical collar might result in

A) A too-large collar will hyperextend the neck
B) A too-small collar will hyperextend the neck
C) A too-small collar will hyperflex the neck
D) all of the above

Question # 16 (Multiple Choice) The components of the central nervous system are the

A) brain and spinal cord
B) arteries and veins
C) muscles and tendons
D) cranium and vertebrae

Question # 17 (Multiple Choice) A short spine board is appropriate to use in immobilizing a patient who is

A) seated in a vehicle
B) lying on a soft surface
C) lying on a hard surface
D) standing

Question # 18 (Multiple Choice) When using a short spine board to immobilize a patient, the patient's head should be secured

A) last, after the body
B) first, before the body
C) after the patient is removed from the vehicle
D) as soon as the patient is placed on a long spine board

Question # 19 (Multiple Choice) Your patient is a 52-year-old unconscious female patient who was the driver in a vehicle struck by a milk delivery truck. She has an open head wound, and bruising to the chest and abdomen. Respiration's are 28 per minute, pulse is 140 per minute. Her skin is cool and clammy. Your choice for extricating this patient is

A) full immobilization with a short spine board
B) full immobilization with a KED
C) rapid extrication
D) long board only

Question # 20 (Multiple Choice) When log-rolling a patient onto a long spine board, the EMT-B in charge of the move is the person at the

A) head
B) chest
C) feet
D) pelvis

Question # 21 (Multiple Choice) Bone fragments, blood clots, vomit or broken teeth are all potential

A) causes for shock
B) contraindications for a non rebreather mask
C) indications for full immobilization
D) airway obstructions

Question # 22 (Multiple Choice) You should open the airway of a trauma patient by using the

A) jaw-thrust method
B) jaw-thrust, head-tilt method
C) head-tilt, chin-lift method
D) head-tilt, neck-lift method

Question # 23 (Multiple Choice) The brain is protected by the

A) mandible
B) cranium
C) cerebrum
D) calcaneous

Question # 24 (Multiple Choice) You are caring for a 36-year-old, conscious, male patient involved in an altercation in a bar. His face was beaten with a pipe and he has an open soft tissue injury to the left side of his face. It would be save to assume from this injury that the patient also has a

A) pelvic injury
B) lower extremity injury
C) neck injury
D) lumbar injury

Question # 25 (Multiple Choice) Tenderness anywhere along the vertebrae may indicate a possible

A) head injury
B) spine injury
C) abdominal injury
D) kidney injury

Question # 26 (Multiple Choice) The definition of absorbed poisons is those that are

A) swallowed
B) inhaled
C) taken into the body through unbroken skin
D) all of the above

Question # 27 (Multiple Choice) In caring for the patient suffering a severe allergic reaction, you must obtain permission from medical direction to

A) administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask
B) provide artificial respirations, if needed
C) help the patient administer his epinephrine auto-injector
D) transport the patient to the hospital

Question # 28 (Multiple Choice) Your patient is a conscious 2-year-old male. He has ingested a small quantity of bleach. You may see which of the following signs

A) dilated pupils
B) hot, dry skin
C) bright red skin on child's extremities
D) chemical burns around the mouth

Question # 29 (Multiple Choice) Your patient is a conscious 16-year-old female who has ingested an unknown number of sleeping pills. You should ask all of the following questions EXCEPT

A) "Who gave you the pills?"
B) "Has anyone tried to treat you with anything?"
C) "Over how long a period did you take the pills?"
D) "How much do you weigh?"

Question # 30 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has splashed dry cleaning fluid into his eyes. What treatment should you provide first

A) Irrigate eyes with clean water
B) Cover eyes with sterile gauze
C) Dilute ammonia with vinegar and water
D) Irrigate eyes with a weak acid solution

Question # 31 (Multiple Choice) A 6 year old female has splashed liquid ammonia into her eyes. Irrigation of her eyes should be continued for how many minutes

A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20

Question # 32 (Multiple Choice) According to friends, a 17 year old male patient has attempted suicide by ingesting sleeping pills and alcohol. His respiration's are 9. You should first

A) give oxygen by nasal canula
B) administer activated charcoal
C) administer syrup of ipecac
D) give oxygen by BVM

Question # 33 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following is a trade name for activated charcoal

A) Dopamine
B) Poison-X
C) Charcough
D) Actidose

Question # 34 (Multiple Choice) What is the recommended dose of activated charcoal for a 5-year-old child

A) 50 grams
B) 1 gram activated charcoal/kg of body weight
C) 12.5 grams activated charcoal/kg of body weight
D) 100 grams

Question # 35 (Multiple Choice) A 20-year-old patient appears dazed and seems to have lost contact with reality. The mucous membranes of his nose and mouth are swollen. He complains of a "funny numb feeling" inside his head. This patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of drug abuse, most likely from

A) hallucinogens
B) volatile chemicals
C) uppers
D) downers

Question # 36 (Multiple Choice) With the pediatric asthma patient which is considered the most critical sign/symptom

A) crowing
B) silent chest
C) stridor
D) wheezes

Question # 37 (Multiple Choice) The most common form of shock in the pediatric patient is

A) hypovolemic
B) septic
C) neurogenic
D) cardiogenic

Question # 38 (Multiple Choice) A common symptom of croup is

A) vomiting
B) nausea
C) barking cough
D) drooling

Question # 39 (Multiple Choice) Common symptoms of epiglottitis include all of the following EXCEPT

A) excessive drooling
B) sudden onset of high fever
C) barking cough
D) stridor

Question # 40 (Multiple Choice) Your 3 year old patient is in shock and continues to display persistent bradycardia and cyanosis despite aggressive oxygenation efforts. You should next treat this with oxygenation in the pediatric patient may be treated with

A) dopamine
B) CPR
C) epinephrine
D) glucose

Question # 41 (Multiple Choice) In the 1 week old pediatric patient, all of the following are acceptable ways to assess heart rate, EXCEPTby

A) cerebral artery
B) umbilical cord
C) brachial artery
D) carotid artery

Question # 42 (True/False) A J wave will not be found in the pediatric patient less than 6 months of age

A) True
B) False

Question # 43 (Multiple Choice) A neonate is defined as a child up to

A) 1 week in age
B) 2 weeks in age
C) 1 month in age
D) 2 months isn age

Question # 44 (Multiple Choice) When examining the neonate or infants fontanelle, a normal state would be

A) slightly bulged and tight
B) slightly sunken
C) 2-3 inches below the cranial surface
D) none of the above

Question # 45 (Multiple Choice) Seizures in a pediatric patient may be caused by

A) epilepsy or head trauma
B) fever caused by infection
C) poising or hypoglycemia
D) a and b only
E) a, b and c

Question # 46 (Multiple Choice) Due to the increased risk of ___ , ASA is contraindicated in the pediatric patient

A) hypoglycemia
B) Reyes syndrome
C) meningitis
D) seizures

Question # 47 (Multiple Choice) A stiff neck and sever headache may indicate

A) sepsis
B) meningitis
C) Reyes syndrome
D) tonsilitis

Question # 48 (Multiple Choice) The initial joules setting for defibrillation of the pediatric patient is

A) 5 joules
B) 2 joules per kilogram
C) 4 joules per kilogram
D) 4 joules per pound

Question # 49 (Multiple Choice) If the first attempt at defibrillation is unsuccessful, the second setting should be

A) the same as the first
B) double of the first
C) 10 joules
D) 100 joules

Question # 50 (True/False) In all cases of epiglottitis, it is crucial to intubate as soon as possible

A) True
B) False

Question # 51 (Multiple Choice) What does the term "dehiscence" loosely refer to?

A) a healed wound
B) a burst wound
C) an infected wound

Question # 52 (Multiple Choice) Where is an AAA located?

A) in the abdomen
B) in the GI track
C) in the travel brochure
D) in the brain

Question # 53 (Multiple Choice) Normal parameters for an SP02 reading in a healthy person is

A) 60-70%
B) 70-80%
C) 80-90%
D) 90-100%

Question # 54 (Multiple Choice) You might observe JVD in a person suffering from

A) an infiltrated IV
B) a clogged endotracheal tube
C) congestive heart failure

Question # 55 (Multiple Answer) Which of the following are lower airway problems?

A) rhonchi
B) rales
C) gurgling
D) snoring

Question # 56 (Multiple Choice) Your heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia with rare unifocal PVC's in a 78 year old ill patient. You should

A) administer procainamide
B) administer lidocaine
C) administer oxygen
D) administer isoproterenol

Question # 57 (Multiple Choice) A liver functioning improperly in an ill patient may cause the skin to become

A) cyanotic and dry
B) jaundiced and warm
C) blue and diaphorectic
D) none of the above

Question # 58 (True/False) Old scar tissue may tear and bleed

A) True
B) False

Question # 59 (Multiple Choice) Dopamine is classified as a

A) benzodiazepine
B) antagonist
C) anticholinergic
D) sympathomimetic

Question # 60 (Multiple Choice) In addition to sepsis, anaphylaxis, severe acidosis and CNS injury are classified as ___

A) obstructive shock
B) distributive shock
C) respiratory shock
D) cardiogenic shock

Question # 61 (Multiple Choice) In the Transfer Case", which vessel was compromised

A) aorta
B) superior mesenteric
C) hepatic
D) gastroepiploic

Question # 62 (Multiple Choice) The dose range for the use of dobutamine in the adult patient is

A) 2-20 mcg/kg/min titrate to BP
B) 2-20mcg/kg/min titrate to heart rate
C) 1-5 mcg/kg/min titrate to BP
D) 2-5 mcg/kg titrate to heart rate

Question # 63 (Multiple Choice) A 42-year-old male patient was involved in a house fire. His arms are charred black but the patient states he has little pain. This burn would be classified as

A) partial thickness
B) minor
C) full thickness
D) superficial

Question # 64 (Multiple Choice) Protection, temperature regulation, and excretion are major functions of the

A) muscles
B) liver
C) skin
D) blood vessels

Question # 65 (Multiple Choice) The outer layer of the skin is called the

A) dermis
B) subcutaneous layer
C) epidermis
D) subdura

Question # 66 (Multiple Choice) In an adult, a full thickness burn that involves 2% to 10% of the body surface is classified as

A) minor burn
B) moderate burn
C) critical burn
D) circumferential burn

Question # 67 (Multiple Choice) You are called to assist a 3-year-old male patient who pulled a pot of hot water from the stove spilling hot it onto their upper chest. The skin is red and painful, but no other signs or symptoms are present. This childs burn would be classified as

A) critical
B) severe
C) superficial
D) full thickness

Question # 68 (Multiple Choice) A burn characterized by intense pain, reddening, and blisters is called a

A) superficial burn
B) partial thickness burn
C) full thickness burn
D) critical burn

Question # 69 (Multiple Choice) Acceptable care for a 7% superficial burn may include all of the following EXCEPT

A) cool the burn with water
B) keep the patient warm
C) apply a burn ointment
D) keep the burn site clean

Question # 70 (Multiple Choice) Blisters should be cared for by

A) opening and draining
B) sealing with burn ointment
C) opening and disinfecting
D) leaving intact and covering loosely

Question # 71 (Multiple Choice) Your first concern in treating a conscious patient who has received partial thickness burns to the face is treating

A) for relative hypothermia
B) the burned area by applying a dressing
C) for hypovolemia shock
D) airway related problems

Question # 72 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has been exposed to an unknown chemical which has soaked his clothing. You should immediately flush the patient with

A) water
B) alcohol
C) neutralizing solution
D) vinegar

Question # 73 (Multiple Choice) The most serious problem to consider with an electrical burn is

A) shock
B) hyperthermia
C) brain damage
D) cardiac dysrhytmia

Question # 74 (Multiple Choice) A superficial burn is characterized by

A) charred black areas
B) lack of pain
C) reddening of the skin
D) blisters

Question # 75 (Multiple Choice) How many vertebrae are in the thoracic spine

A) 4
B) 5
C) 7
D) 12

Question # 76 (Multiple Choice) In order, what are the names of the division of the spine

A) cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, coccyx
B) thoracic, cervical. lumbar, sacral, coccyx
C) coccyx, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, cervical
D) cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccyx

Question # 77 (Multiple Choice) How many vertebrae are in the cervical spine

A) 4
B) 5
C) 7
D) 12

Question # 78 (Multiple Choice) How many vertebrae are in the lumbar spine

A) 4
B) 5
C) 7
D) 12

Question # 79 (True/False) Each vertebrae is comprised of the body, spinal foramen and three processes

A) True
B) False

Question # 80 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following would be considered a major incident?

A) 1-Situations involving more patients than can be handled by responding units 2-Situations in which mutual aid is required from outside agencies 3-Situations involving hazardous or radioactive materials or chemicals
B) 1, 2 only
C) 1, 3 only
D) 2, 3 only
E) 1, 2, 3

Question # 81 (Multiple Choice) Using the START method of triage, a victim with a respiratory rate of 36, no palpable radial pulse, and an altered level of consciousness is categorized as

A) delayed
B) less critically injured
C) critical/immediate
D) dead/nonsalvageable

Question # 82 (Multiple Choice) Evaluation of a victim of a major incident reveals a respiratory rate of 44 per minute. Using the START method of triage, your

A) evaluate the patient's mental status
B) evaluate the patient's capillary refill
C) evaluate the patient's pulse and blood pressure
D) stop further evaluation and categorize the patient as critical/immediate

Question # 83 (True/False) The START method of triage is used to classify victims as immediate, delayed, nonsalvageable/dead

A) True
B) False

Question # 84 (True/False) As soon as possible after arrival at the scene of a major incident, a detailed patient assessment should be performed on each victim and the information relayed to Incident Command

A) True
B) False

Question # 85 (Multiple Choice) Signs and symptoms of a basilar skull fracture may include:

A) 1-Cerebrospinal fluid draining from the nose. 2-Ecchymosis in the mastoid region 3-Periorbital ecchymosis
B) 1, 2 only.
C) 1, 3 only.
D) 2, 3 only.
E) 1, 2, 3

Question # 86 (Multiple Choice) A 27-year-old man has suffered a blow to the right side of the head. His injury may cause compression of the oculomotor cranial nerve resulting in:

A) dilation of the ipsilateral pupil
B) dilation of the contralateral pupil
C) constriction of the ipsilateral pupil
D) constriction of the contralateral pupil

Question # 87 (Multiple Choice) A 46-year-old man is the victim of a motor vehicle crash. Examination of the patient reveals an abrasion on the forehead, bruising of the center of the chest, and a rigid abdomen. The patient was the unrestrained driver of a small car that was struck head-on by a late model sports utility vehicle. The patient is able to state his name but does not know where he is or today's date. His blood pressure is 80/60, pulse 114, respiratory rate 16. Breath sounds are equal bilaterally. The patient's skin is pale, cool, and diaphoretic. You suspect this patient's hypotension is most likely due to:

A) hypoxia
B) hypovolemia
C) a tension pneumothorax
D) increased intracranial pressure

Question # 88 (Multiple Choice) You are called for an unconscious man. On arrival you find an unresponsive male, approximately 20 years of age, lying supine in a parking lot. Bystanders state he was the victim of a gang fight and has been struck in the head and shoulders with a baseball bat. Examination reveals contusions to the left temporal area and over the shoulders. There is a small amount of bleeding from the left nostril. The patient's blood pressure is 118/74, pulse 90 and regular, respiratory rate 12/min. Which of the following represents the MOST IMPORTANT intervention you can perform for this patient to help minimize cerebral edema?

A) Hyperventilate (super oxygenate) the patient
B) Apply the pneumatic antishock garment
C) Placing the patient in Trendelenburg position
D) Establish two large-bore IVs of normal saline and infuse wide open

Question # 89 (Multiple Choice) The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates:

A) motor response, gag reflex, verbal response
B) eye opening, motor response, verbal response
C) eye opening, pupillary response, motor response
D) verbal response, pupillary response, motor response

Question # 90 (Multiple Answer) A middle-aged man is the victim of a car-pedestrian crash. Bystanders state he was crossing the street when he was struck by a car traveling approximately 30 miles per hour. The patient is lying prone on the pavement and appears unconscious. Your first action will be to: (two answers could be considered correct)

A) examine the patient's neck, back, and lower extremities for injuries
B) logroll the patient to a supine position to assess airway, breathing, and circulation
C) assess the patient's ABCs, back, and extremities in his present position, then logroll him to a supine position
D) apply a cervical collar in his present position, position the pneumatic antishock garment on a long backboard, and logroll the patient onto the board

Question # 91 (Multiple Choice) A patient who opens his eyes in response to pain, makes no verbal response, but withdraws from pain has a Glasgow Coma Score

A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 11

Question # 92 (Multiple Choice) A 33-year-old man is the victim of a motorcycle crash. Examination reveals a possible fracture of the right humerus, distended abdomen, and an unstable pelvis. The patient's vital signs are: BP 68/40, P 124, R 18. You are preparing to establish two large-bore IVs. The first IV is successfully placed in the left antecubital fossa. The second IV should be placed in the:

A) right hand.
B) there is no need to establish a second IV line
C) right antecubital fossa or external jugular vein
D) external jugular vein or a second IV in the left upper extremity

Question # 93 (Multiple Choice) A 30-year-old female was thrown from her horse, striking her head on a concrete bench before she hit the ground. She is unconscious with a blood pressure of 74/44, pulse 58 and regular, respirations 14. Her skin is warm and dry. The physical examination is unremarkable except for an abrasion to the chin and right side of the forehead. You suspect:

A) subdural hematoma
B) hypovolemic shock
C) drug overdose
D) neurogenic shock

Question # 94 (Multiple Choice) Select the correct statement regarding the Glasgow Coma Scale

A) A score of 3 is normal
B) A score of 7 represents coma
C) A score of 12 accompanies brain death
D) A score of 15 is indicative of a poor prognosis

Question # 95 (Multiple Choice) Cushing's triad is associated with

A) cardiac tamponade
B) tension pneumothorax
C) massive hemothorax
D) increased intracranial pressure

Question # 96 (Multiple Choice) A 19-year-old male has suffered a blow to the head. Examination reveals fluid draining from the patient's left ear. You should:

A) firmly pack the left ear with sterile gauze
B) apply a loose sterile dressing to the left ear
C) apply direct pressure to the left ear with a gloved finger
D) transport the patient on the right side to slow the flow of fluid

Question # 97 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following signs are associated with Cushing's triad?

A) decreasing blood pressure, decreasing pulse rate, change in respiratory pattern
B) increasing blood pressure, decreasing pulse rate, change in respiratory pattern
C) increasing blood pressure, increasing pulse rate, change in respiratory pattern
D) decreasing blood pressure, increasing pulse rate, change in respiratory pattern.

Question # 98 (Multiple Choice) The MOST important sign in the evaluation of a head-injured patient is

A) tachycardia.
B) blood pressure
C) tachypnea.
D) level of consciousness

Question # 99 (Multiple Choice) All of the following patients are victims involved in a motor vehicle crash. Which patient should be rapidly extricated?

A) . 26-year-old female front seat passenger complaining of a headache. Laceration present on right forehead. BP 138/80, P 92, R 16
B) 19-year-old male back seat passenger complaining of pain in right femur. Swelling and discoloration noted over right thigh. BP 128/74, P 88, R 14.
C) 30-year-old male driver complaining of difficulty breathing. Unable to palpate radial pulse, carotid weak, rate 120. Respiratory rate 44 and labored
D) 24-year-old female back seat passenger complaining of abdominal pain. Seatbelt markings noted over chest and abdomen. BP 118/82, P 76, R 16

Question # 100 (Multiple Choice) A patient has suffered an open skull fracture with profuse bleeding. Management should include:

A) applying a constricting band to the forehead
B) applying direct pressure to both carotid arteries
C) applying direct pressure to both carotid arteries
D) administering oxygen by nasal cannula and transporting rapidly to the hospital

Question # 101 (Multiple Choice) You are called for an assault victim. You arrive to find a man approximately 20 years of age lying on his side in an alley. Examination reveals the patient has blood oozing from the right side of his nose. The patient's right cheek appears flattened and there is discoloration around his eyes. The patient states his cheek and nose feel numb. You suspect:

A) mandibular fracture
B) basilar skull fracture
C) parotid fracture
D) zygomatic fracture

Question # 102 (Multiple Choice) You are on the scene of a car-pedestrian crash. A 63-year-old woman was crossing the street when she was struck by a car traveling approximately 45 miles per hour. The patient was thrown approximately 20 feet. The decision to "load-and-go" or continue stabilization at the scene will be primarily based on:

A) local triage protocols
B) national trauma guidelines.
C) employer policies & physical findings
D) mechanism of injury & physical findings.

Question # 103 (Multiple Choice) Select the correct statement regarding an epidural hematoma.

A) In an epidural hematoma, bleeding occurs between the dura and arachnoid mater.
B) An epidural hematoma develops slowly, producing symptoms hours or days after the injury.
C) In an epidural hematoma, bleeding occurs between the cranium and the dura
D) An epidural hematoma is most often associated with venous bleeding

Question # 104 (Multiple Choice) A "Halo" test is a check for

A) cervical injury
B) CSF leaks
C) Priapism
D) Brain damage

Question # 105 (Multiple Choice) The METTAG system is one method of triaging patients. When using this system, a black tag identifies a patient who is:

A) dead or unexpected survival.
B) non-life or limb-threatening.
C) less critically injured.
D) the most critically injured.

Question # 106 (Multiple Choice) Responsibilities of the incident commander include:

A) working with the communication center and hospitals to obtain medical facility status and treatment capabilities.
B) evaluating the resources required for patient treatment and providing suitable "immediate" and "delayed" treatment areas.
C) determining the resources necessary to extricate trapped patients and delivering them to the treatment sector.
D) rapidly assessing the situation, requesting additional resources as necessary, and developing a plan of action for management of the incident.

Question # 107 (Multiple Choice) The START method of triage uses a 60-second assessment that evaluates:

A) pulses, motor, sensation
B) airway, breathing, circulation
C) ventilation, perfusion, mental status
D) level of consciousness, tenderness, crepitation

Question # 108 (Multiple Choice) The METTAG system is one method of triaging patients. When using this system, a green tag identifies a patient who is:

A) dead or unexpected survival.
B) non-life or limb-threatening.
C) less critically injured.
D) the most critically injured.

Question # 109 (Multiple Choice) The START method of triage classifies victims as:

A) immediate, delayed, nonsalvageable/dead
B) delayed, non-life or limb-threatening, dead
C) the most critically injured, walking wounded, dead
D) walking wounded, nonsalvageable, the most critically injured

Question # 110 (Multiple Choice) The sector responsible for directing emergency vehicles at the scene of a major incident is the:

A) staging sector
B) treatment sector
C) extrication sector
D) transportation sector

Question # 111 (Multiple Choice) A 27-year-old man has suffered a blow to the right side of the head. His injury may cause compression of the oculomotor cranial nerve resulting in:

A) dilation of the ipsilateral pupil.
B) dilation of the contralateral pupil.
C) constriction of the ipsilateral pupil.
D) constriction of the contralateral pupil.

Question # 112 (Multiple Choice) You are called for an unconscious man. On arrival you find an unresponsive male, approximately 20 years of age, lying supine in a parking lot. Bystanders state he was the victim of a gang fight and has been struck in the head and shoulders with a baseball bat. Examination reveals contusions to the left temporal area and over the shoulders. There is a small amount of bleeding from the left nostril. The patient's blood pressure is 118/74, pulse 90 and regular, respiratory rate 12/min. Which of the following represents the MOST IMPORTANT intervention you can perform for this patient to help minimize cerebral edema?

A) Hyperventilate the patient.
B) Apply the pneumatic antishock garment.
C) Placing the patient in Trendelenburg position.
D) Establish two large-bore IVs of normal saline and infuse wide open.

Question # 113 (Multiple Choice) The Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates:

A) motor response, gag reflex, verbal response.
B) eye opening, motor response, verbal response.
C) eye opening, pupillary response, motor response.
D) verbal response, pupillary response, motor response.

Question # 114 (Multiple Choice) A patient who opens his eyes in response to pain, makes no verbal response, but withdraws from pain has a Glasgow Coma Score of:

A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 11

Question # 115 (Multiple Choice) Cushing's triad is associated with

A) cardiac tamponade
B) tension pneumothorax
C) massive hemothorax
D) increased intracranial pressure

Question # 116 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following signs are associated with Cushing's triad?

A) decreasing blood pressure, decreasing pulse rate, change in respiratory pattern
B) increasing blood pressure, decreasing pulse rate, change in respiratory pattern
C) increasing blood pressure, increasing pulse rate, change in respiratory pattern
D) decreasing blood pressure, increasing pulse rate, change in respiratory pattern

Question # 117 (Multiple Choice) Select the most appropriate statement that should be used to describe a patient's level of consciousness

A) The patient is obtunded
B) The patient appears drowsy
C) The patient is semiconscious
D) The patient withdraws from a painful stimulus

Question # 118 (Multiple Choice) All of the following patients are victims involved in a motor vehicle crash. Which patient should be rapidly extricated?

A) 26-year-old female front seat passenger complaining of a headache. Laceration present on right forehead. BP 138/80, P 92, R 16
B) 19-year-old male back seat passenger complaining of pain in right femur. Swelling and discoloration noted over right thigh. BP 128/74, P 88, R 14
C) 30-year-old male driver complaining of difficulty breathing. Unable to palpate radial pulse, carotid weak, rate 120. Respiratory rate 44 and labored
D) 24-year-old female back seat passenger complaining of abdominal pain. Seatbelt markings noted over chest and abdomen. BP 118/82, P 76, R 16

Question # 119 (Multiple Choice) The MOST important sign in the evaluation of a head-injured patient is:

A) tachycardia
B) blood pressure
C) tachypnea
D) level of consciousness

Question # 120 (Multiple Choice) LORAZAPAM (ATIVAN) is classified as an

A) benzodiazepine
B) vasodilator
C) anit-inflammatory agent
D) anticholinergic

Question # 121 (Multiple Choice) The patient in the "I Feel So Ejected" case was given ATIVAN at the hospital for

A) reducing brain swelling
B) reducing hypotenison
C) reducing seizure activity
D) reducing PVC's

Question # 122 (Multiple Choice) The correct adult dosage of ATIVAN is

A) 0.5 - 2.0 mg IV
B) 1-2 g diluted in 10 ml of D5W
C) 2-4 g IV
D) 1.5 -2.0 g/kg IV

Question # 123 (Multiple Choice) The Mannitol dose for an adult is

A) 1.5 -2.0 g/kg IV
B) 25-50 mg IV
C) 0.5 mg/lb to 0.8 mg/lb IM, SQ
D) 0.2 ml in 2.5 ml saline

Question # 124 (Multiple Choice) MANNITOL (OSMOTROL) is an osmotic diuretic that inhibits sodium and water absorption in the kidneys. It would most likely be used for

A) GI bleeds
B) acute cerebral edema
C) kidney injury
D) Loop of Henley dysfunction

Question # 125 (Multiple Choice) Select the correct statement regarding an epidural hematoma.

A) In an epidural hematoma, bleeding occurs between the dura and arachnoid mater.
B) n epidural hematoma develops slowly, producing symptoms hours or days after the injury.
C) In an epidural hematoma, bleeding occurs between the cranium and the dura.
D) An epidural hematoma is most often associated with venous bleeding.

Question # 126 (Multiple Choice) Signs and symptoms of a basilar skull fracture may include: 1. Cerebrospinal fluid draining from the nose. 2. Ecchymosis in the mastoid region. 3. Periorbital ecchymosis.

A) a. 1, 2 only.
B) b. 1, 3 only.
C) c. 2, 3 only.
D) d. 1, 2, 3.

Question # 127 (Multiple Choice) Nitroglycerin may not be given if the patient

A) has used two tablets of nitroglycerin
B) has a systolic blood pressure less than 90
C) has a diastolic blood pressure less than 90
D) has taken one tablet with no relief

Question # 128 (Multiple Choice) OPQRST are letters used to help you remember which questions to ask patients during your assessment. What does the "P" stand for?

A) proximity
B) pulse
C) pain
D) provocation

Question # 129 (Multiple Choice) A 45-year-old patient complains of breathing difficulty and and chest pain. He will not tolerate a non-rebreather mask. You should

A) use a nasal cannula
B) move the mask to a position of comfort
C) provide artificial ventilation with a bag-valve mask
D) use a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen

Question # 130 (Multiple Choice) Your 40-year-old male patient complains of mild chest discomfort. As an EMT-B you should:

A) decide whether or not the patient has a heart problem
B) decide what type of heart problem it might be
C) treat as if the patient has cardiac compromise.
D) all of the above

Question # 131 (Multiple Choice) Cardiac compromise commonly includes all of the following signs or symptoms EXCEPT

A) difficulty breathing.
B) warm, dry skin.
C) nausea or vomiting.
D) epigastric pain

Question # 132 (Multiple Choice) Your adult patient with chest pain has a blood pressure of 92/54, a pulse of 112 and has a history of angina. You should

A) transport the patient promptly.
B) administer the patient's prescribed nitroglycerin
C) quickly begin CPR/full resuscitation efforts
D) apply an automated external defibrillator and monitor the patient's cardiac rhythm

Question # 133 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following is a shockable rythum?

A) sinus rhythm
B) ventricular fibrillation
C) pulseless electrical activity
D) third degree block

Question # 134 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following cardiac arrest patients should you defibrillate?

A) a 12-year-old who weighs less 90 lbs
B) a 14-year-old who weighs 110 lbs
C) a 12-year-old trauma patient who weighs 120 lbs
D) an infant experiencing sudden infant death syndrome

Question # 135 (Multiple Answer) All of the following are effects of nitroglycerin (multi answer)

A) it dilates the blood vessels
B) it allows more blood to remain in the capillaries
C) it reduces the heart's work load
D) it increases the blood pressure

Question # 136 (Multiple Answer) Which of the following are contraindications for the use of nitroglycerin? (multi answer)

A) The patient has a history of cardiac problems
B) The patient complains of chest pain
C) The patient has also has a head injury
D) The patient took Viagra 3 hours ago

Question # 137 (Multiple Choice) The cardiac conduction system disturbance that most commonly results in cardiac arrest is

A) pulseless electrical activity
B) ventricular fibrillation
C) ventricular tachycardia
D) asystole.

Question # 138 (Multiple Choice) The EMT-B requests prehospital advanced cardiac life support for the care of the cardiac arrest patient because

A) early ACLS intervention provides for higher survival rates
B) ACLS personnel must be present when EMT-Bs perform defibrillation.
C) only paramedics can transport cardiac arrest patients
D) the EMT-B is not adequately trained to manage cardiac arrest

Question # 139 (Multiple Choice) Nitroglycerin is a medication that is administered:

A) as a slurry
B) as an injection
C) sublingually.
D) by inhalation

Question # 140 (Multiple Choice) Why is nitroglycerin effective for patients with recurrent chest pain?

A) It enlarges bronchial tubes
B) It constricts the blood vessels
C) It dilates coronary blood vessels
D) All of the above

Question # 141 (Multiple Choice) Your 55-year-old female patient has chest pain and a blood pressure of 110/80. You give nitroglycerin. You recheck her blood pressure and are unable to obtain a reading. Her response to the nitroglycerin is called:

A) a side effect
B) an indication
C) a contraindication
D) a characteristic

Question # 142 (Multiple Choice) Your 55-year-old female patient has chest pain and a blood pressure of 102/70. You assist with one tablet of nitroglycerin. You recheck her blood pressure and it is 80/50 and become semi- consciousness. A an EMT B, you should

A) place her in the Fowlers position
B) place her in the semi reverse Trendelenburg position
C) place her in the semi Fowlers position
D) place her in the Trendelenburg position

Question # 143 (Multiple Choice) Study the picture, and then identify: Structure number 1

A) Inferior vena cava
B) Superior vena cava
C) Aorta
D) Right ventricle

Question # 144 (Multiple Choice) Study the picture, and then identify: Structure number 5

A) Right ventricle
B) Aorta
C) Inferior vena cava
D) Left ventricle

Question # 145 (Multiple Choice) Using the picture, which number indicates- The first chamber where blood returns to the heart

A) 1
B) 2
C) 5
D) none of the above

Question # 146 (Multiple Choice) If there are no contraindications, ___ mg of ASA should be given to the chest pain patient.

A) 362
B) 324
C) 400
D) 320

Question # 147 (Multiple Choice) The ST segment in lead II and II is

A) depressed
B) elevated
C) normal
D) isoelectric

Question # 148 (Multiple Choice) A lateral left ventricular myocardial infarction is due to the occlusion of:

A) Perforating arteries
B) Right coronary artery
C) Right marginal branch
D) Left anterior descending
E) Left circumflex artery

Question # 149 (Multiple Choice) Whichbest refers to the filling and emptying of the heart:

A) Blood Brain Barrier
B) Starlings Law
C) Einthoven's Triangle
D) Angle of Louis
E) Poiseulle's Law

Question # 150 (Multiple Choice) The formation of a thrombus

A) is the result of rupture of the artery wall
B) a thinning of the artery wall
C) is the result of myocardial cells becoming ischemic
D) can lead to an embolism obstructing blood flow in the artery

Question # 151 (Multiple Answer) The left coronary artery supplies (multi answer)

A) LEFT VENTRICLE
B) ANTERIOR 2/3 OF THE INTERVENTRICULAR SEPTUM
C) VARIABLE PORTIONS OF THE RIGHT VENTRICLE
D) ATRIOVENTRICULAR NODE

Question # 152 (Multiple Answer) The right coronary artery supplies (multi answer)

A) POSTEROLATERAL SURFACE OF THE HEART
B) SINOATRIAL NODE
C) POSTERIOR 1/3 OF THE INTERVENTRICULAR SEPTUM
D) LEFT VENTRICLE

Question # 153 (Multiple Choice) A myocardial infarction occurs when

A) a heart valve does not close completely
B) a heart valve does not open fully
C) there is a blockage in a coronary artery
D) the electrical impulses of the heart become irregular

Question # 154 (Multiple Choice) All of the following are complications of myocardial infarction except

A) Cor pulmonale
B) Cerebral emboli
C) Cardiac tamponade
D) Dissecting aortic aneurysm

Question # 155 (Multiple Choice) The reciprocal ST that matches the previous answer is seen in leads

A) aVL and V2
B) I, aVL and V2
C) aVL, V5 and V6
D) aVF, aVL and V2

Question # 156 (Multiple Choice) Deep and slurred S waves can be seen in leads

A) I, aVL, V5 and V6
B) V1 to V4
C) I, aVL and V2

Question # 157 (Multiple Choice) Poor R wave progression in the precordial leads along with ST elevation in V1 could suggest

A) the presence of a septal infarction
B) the presence of an anterior infarction
C) the presence of an aortic tear
D) the presence of Cor pulmonale

Question # 158 (Multiple Choice) Patients with poor cardiac output post nitrogylcerin administration may need to be treated with an inotropic drug, such as

A) lidocaine
B) atropine
C) dobutamine
D) mag sulfate

Question # 159 (Multiple Choice) Patients with poor cardiac output post nitrogylcerin administration may need to be treated for symptomatic bradycardia with

A) lidocaine
B) atropine
C) dobutamine
D) mag sulfate

Question # 160 (Multiple Choice) BONUS QUESTION: Thyroid hyperfunction leads to:

A) Mitral stenosis
B) Marked tachycardia
C) Decreased cardiac output
D) Right-sided heart failure
E) Increased peripheral vascular resistance

Question # 161 (Multiple Choice) 1. The currently recognized cause for cat scratch disease is:

A) prion
B) rickettsia
C) fungus
D) virus

Question # 162 (True/False) 2. True or false, Cat Scratch disease is more common patients under the age of 21

A) True
B) False

Question # 163 (True/False) 3. Lymphadenopathy in the adult is frequently a sign of metastatic cancer

A) True
B) False

Question # 164 (Multiple Choice) Cats

A) Tularemia
B) Anthrax
C) Plague
D) Brucellosis
E) Toxiplasmosis

Question # 165 (Multiple Choice) Rats

A) Tularemia
B) Anthrax
C) Plague
D) Brucellosis
E) Toxiplasmosis

Question # 166 (Multiple Choice) Cattle

A) Tularemia
B) Anthrax
C) Plague
D) Brucellosis
E) Toxiplasmosis

Question # 167 (Multiple Choice) Sheep

A) Tularemia
B) Anthrax
C) Plague
D) Brucellosis
E) Toxiplasmosis

Question # 168 (True/False) 5. Lymphadenopathy in children is most commonly associated with infection

A) True
B) False

Question # 169 (True/False) 6. Declawing of cats is a proper prophylaxis for CSD

A) True
B) False

Question # 170 (True/False) 7. Humans may acquire CSD directly via bites from infected fleas.

A) True
B) False

Question # 171 (Multiple Choice) 8. Using the pneumonic AEIOU TIPS as a guide for evaluation of coma, what does the letter A stand for?

A) Acidosis
B) Alkalosis
C) Akestenia
D) Amyloidosis

Question # 172 (Multiple Choice) 9. Causes of seizure GENERALLY include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) hypoxia
B) hypoglycemia
C) infection
D) pre-eclampsia

Question # 173 (True/False) 10. Cat bites are more commonly the cause of CSD than scratches

A) True
B) False

Question # 174 (Multiple Choice) A 54-year-old male patient has been thrown through a window. Glass has caused an open neck wound. You should dress this wound with:

A) an occlusive dressing
B) a sterile gauze dressing
C) a moist gauze dressing
D) butterfly bandages

Question # 175 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has been exposed to an unknown chemical which has soaked his clothing. You should flush the patient with

A) water
B) a neutralizing solution
C) vinegar
D) a baking soda solution

Question # 176 (Multiple Choice) Shock absorption and insulation are the major functions of which layer of the skin?

A) dermis
B) subcutaneous layer
C) epidermis
D) dura.

Question # 177 (Multiple Choice) The major problem caused by electrical shock is often not the burn itself. The most serious problem to consider is

A) shock
B) hypothermia
C) cardiac arrest
D) brain damage

Question # 178 (Multiple Choice) A 23-year-old male patient has been involved in a knife fight and has an open abdominal injury with protruding bowel. Your treatment of the injury should include

A) replacing the exposed bowel
B) application of the PASG for the abdominal injury
C) covering the exposed bowel with a sterile dressing moistened with saline, then an occlusive dressing
D) covering the bowel with dry sterile gauze prior to transport

Question # 179 (Multiple Choice) Because it can become a constricting band,______ should NOT use to hold dressings in place.

A) a triangular bandage
B) an elastic bandage
C) strips of adhesive tape
D) self-adherent roller gauze

Question # 180 (Multiple Choice) A 4-year-old male patient was running in the school hall. You find a pencil impaled in his upper arm. Your should

A) apply a tourniquet to control bleeding
B) remove the pencil and bandage the wound
C) cut the exposed portion of the pencil off to ease bandaging and transport
D) stabilize the pencil with a bulky dressing

Question # 181 (Multiple Choice) A 32-year-old female patient has amputated her index finger in a table saw accident. You have bandaged her hand. The best way to transport the amputated finger is by

A) wrapping the finger in gauze, placing it in a plastic bag, and keeping it cool
B) placing the finger directly in a container sterile saline
C) wrapping the finger well in an occlusive dressing
D) placing the finger directly on dry ice

Question # 182 (Multiple Choice) A patient has had his lower legs burned. The area is charred black but your patient states he has little pain. This burn would be classified as

A) minor
B) partial thickness
C) superficial
D) full thickness

Question # 183 (Multiple Choice) Acceptable care for a superficial burn may include all of the following EXCEPT

A) apply a burn ointment
B) cool the burn with water
C) keep the patient warm
D) keep the burn site clean

Question # 184 (Multiple Choice) When force is transmitted to the body's internal structures causing internal organs to rupture or bleed internally, or small bone fractures to occur is called a(n):

A) crush injury
B) concussion
C) avulsion
D) contusion.

Question # 185 (Multiple Choice) A bruise may be an indication of internal injuries and internal bleeding. It is important for you to monitor your patient for any signs and symptoms of

A) infection
B) shock
C) low blood sugar
D) d. hypothermia

Question # 186 (Multiple Choice) Formation of blood clots would be this mans job :-)

A) White Knight Luke
B) Plumber Platelet
C) Erythrocyte Erythmic
D) Plasma Pooler

Question # 187 (Multiple Choice) If a patient is in shock, you would expect the skin to be

A) cool and clammy
B) warm and dry
C) hot and dry
D) none of the above

Question # 188 (Multiple Choice) What does the "D" in "DCAP-BTLS" stand for?

A) dislocations
B) distal function
C) dyspnea
D) deformities

Question # 189 (Multiple Choice) A teen male patient has a gunshot wound to the chest. Your detailed physical exam on this patient

A) will begin immediately after the initial assessment
B) will begin before the initial assessment
C) may never begin due to the seriousness of the chest injury
D) will be delayed until an ALS provider is on the scene

Question # 190 (Multiple Choice) External bleeding that is a steady flow of dark red blood is from a(n):

A) artery
B) vein
C) capillary
D) all of the above

Question # 191 (Multiple Choice) A late sign of internal bleeding is:

A) bruising
B) painful, swollen extremities
C) signs of shock
D) bright red vomitus

Question # 192 (Multiple Choice) Early signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion include

A) cool, clammy skin
B) bradycardia
C) hypertension
D) constricted pupils.

Question # 193 (Multiple Choice) You arrive at the scene of a bar fight. A 25-year-old man has been stabbed and is bleeding severely. The assailant is still on the scene and is holding a knife. What should you do first?

A) Shoot the assailant
B) Stay behind your partner
C) Order the assailant to go away
D) Run to the rig

Question # 194 (Multiple Choice) A 34-year-old female patient has suffered a partial thickness burn to her forearm. Your treatment should include:

A) applying a burn ointment
B) applying ice
C) puncturing blisters
D) applying a dressing

Question # 195 (Multiple Choice) Regarding abruptio placenta

A) Blood loss is confined within the amniotic sack
B) Internal bleeding is generally minimal.
C) Blood loss may be concealed between the uterine wall and Blood loss may be concealed between the uterine wall and the placenta
D) There is always excessive external vagina bleeding

Question # 196 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has been crushed between a loading dock and a forklift. He presents with severe dyspnea, distended neck veins, absent breath sounds on the right side and diminished breath sounds on the left. You are able to palpate slight tracheal deviation toward the left. You should initially initial management of this patient includes immediate:

A) perform a pericardiocentesis
B) perform a needle decompression of the right side
C) institute rapid transport
D) perform transtracheal jet insufflation

Question # 197 (Multiple Choice) Your homeless patient presents with bright red rectal bleeding, tachycardia and hypotension. This is most likely caused by

A) bleeding ulcers
B) esophageal varicies
C) lower GI bleed
D) upper GI bleed

Question # 198 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has a third trimester bleed. You should

A) perform the internal vaginal exam wearing sterile gloves
B) pack the vagina cavity with gauze
C) transport the patient on her left side
D) perform a c-section at the scene

Question # 199 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following forms of hepatitis is generally NOT chronic?

A) Hepatitis A.
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D

Question # 200 (Multiple Choice) Pale, sweaty skin, a rapid thready pulse and a delayed capillary refill time indicate:

A) ICP
B) hypoperfusion
C) a nervous intern
D) over exertion

Question # 201 (Multiple Choice) Durign intraosseous cannulation it is important to inserted the needle at the anterior surface of the tibial bone 2 centimeters distal to the tibial tuberosity, and directed somewhat inferior in order to avoid damaging the:

A) internal venule
B) periosteum
C) epiphyseal plate
D) fibial plane

Question # 202 (Multiple Choice) After initiating an IV line, your fluid will not flow. The most common cause of this is:

A) leaving the tourniquet in place
B) using a mini drip set improperly
C) a kinked IV line
D) excessive air in the tubing

Question # 203 (Multiple Choice) Average blood volume of an adult is

A) 6 liters
B) 15 units
C) 12 liters
D) 2 gallons

Question # 204 (Multiple Choice) A widened pulse pressure with decreased diastolic pressure, bradycardia and Cheyne-Stokes indicates

A) Becks Triad
B) Cushings Triad
C) Listerine Triad
D) Pousilles Triad

Question # 205 (Multiple Choice) Of the following, your first choice for controlling external bleeding from an extremity should be

A) use of pressure points
B) the use of a tourniquet
C) direct pressure
D) elevation of the extremity

Question # 206 (Multiple Choice) Body substance isolation (BSI) precautions taken when there is a high probability of blood splatter should include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) gloves
B) masks
C) oral airway adjunct
D) protective eyewear

Question # 207 (Multiple Choice) The chief assessment element that tells you whether to suspect internal hemorrhage is:

A) mechanism of injury
B) medical history
C) initial blood pressure
D) level of consciousness

Question # 208 (Multiple Choice) The patient with suspected internal bleeding should be given oxygen by:

A) nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute
B) nasal cannula at 6 liters per minute
C) nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute
D) nonrebreather mask at 8 liters per minute

Question # 209 (Multiple Choice) Oxygen can be delivered more effectively by orotracheal intubation because:

A) a higher liter flow of oxygen can be used
B) more airtight seal can be made with the mask
C) a lower liter flow of oxygen will still produce good results
D) oxygen can be fed directly into the lungs via the trachea

Question # 210 (Multiple Choice) An important concept to understand about shock in infants and children is that:

A) their bodies cannot compensate for blood loss for very long
B) decompensating shock develops very gradually
C) they compensate for a long time, then decompensate rapidly
D) it takes a higher percentage of blood loss to cause shock in a child

Question # 211 (Multiple Choice) All of the following are true relative to the aorta EXCEPT that the aorta:

A) divides at the level of the navel into the iliac arteries
B) is the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood
C) supplies all other vessels with blood
D) is the major artery originating from the heart

Question # 212 (Multiple Choice) At an MCI, a patient with multiple bone or joint injuries would be considered considered

A) green
B) yellow
C) red
D) black

Question # 213 (Multiple Choice) You arrive at the Big Cement Block store to find a 62 year old female sitting in the laxative aisle complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her blood pressure is 80/48, pulse 160. your initial treatment should be to

A) have your partner perform a vagal maneuver
B) defibrillate her at 200 joules
C) replace her electrolyte loss with LR
D) perform a synchronized cardioversion

Question # 214 (Multiple Choice) History and exam indicates your 77 year old female patient has digitalis toxicity. Which drugs are contraindicated in this case?

A) lidocaine and atropine
B) adenosine and amiodarone
C) magnesium sulfate and sodium bicarbonate
D) bretylium and verapamil

Question # 215 (Multiple Choice) You have not been successful in the initial attempt to defibrillate an 80-kg, 56 year old female in ventricular fibrillation. The most appropriate energy level for the second defibrillation should be

A) 50 joules
B) 100 joules
C) 200 joules
D) 300 joules

Question # 216 (True/False) The most important step in the treatment of acidosis during cardiac arrest should be to increase ventilation

A) True
B) False

Question # 217 (Multiple Choice) Your 62 year old female is hypotensive. Your dopamine infusion should be kept at less than 20ug/kg/min or it could result in

A) increased renal arterial vasodilation
B) peripheral arterial vasoconstriction
C) cardiac depression and increased stroke volume
D) further depressing myocardial contractility

Question # 218 (Multiple Choice) You have not been successful in the second attempt to defibrillate the 80-kg, 56 year old female and she remains in in ventricular fibrillation. The most appropriate energy level for the next defibrillation should be

A) 100 joules
B) 150 joules
C) 260 joules
D) 360 joules

Question # 219 (Multiple Choice) If your 78 year old patient had a ventricular fibrillation arrest on the way to the E.R., and was successfully resuscitated to sinus rhythm, which consideration is INAPPROPRIATE in giving lidocaine?

A) a downward dosage adjustment of 50% is appropriate for elderly people
B) the presence of CHF requires a upward adjustment in lidocaine infusion rates in addition to the effects of age per se
C) decreased hepatic blood flow, resulting in decreased clearance of lidocaine
D) there may be an increased drug sensitivity

Question # 220 (Multiple Choice) Homeostasis in the geriatric patient

A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains the same
D) fluctuates

Question # 221 (Multiple Answer) Regarding the geriatric patient, hat potential factors could contribute to falls? check all that apply)

A) leg weakness
B) use of Viagra
C) daily intake of furosemide
D) cognitive impairment

Question # 222 (Multiple Answer) What additional information would be helpful in the initial evaluation of some geriatric patients? (check all that apply)

A) baseline level of function
B) change in functional status
C) taking any medications
D) history of cognitive impairment
E) history of alcoholism

Question # 223 (Multiple Choice) Other types of altered disease presentations that occur in older people include all of the following EXCEPT

A) Muted or delayed typical symptoms
B) Classic altered presentations
C) Silent myocardial infarctions
D) Increased renal circulation

Question # 224 (Multiple Choice) The elderly tend to be cool and require additional outside sources to maintain normal temperatures. What is the normal body temperature in centigrade?

A) 98.6
B) 37.0
C) 86.0
D) 74.0

Question # 225 (Multiple Choice) The geriatric patient suffering form organic brain syndrome or dementia may not be able to make a rationale decisions regarding emergency care. In these situations, you may use ____to permit you to legally render care.

A) Good Samaritan Laws
B) Standards of Care
C) Implied Consent
D) Informed Consent

Question # 226 (Multiple Choice) Fractures in all age groups should have a neurological check prior to and post splinting. What two types of nerve fibers make up the peripheral nervous system?

A) central and peripheral
B) motor and peripheral
C) peripheral and synaptic
D) sensory and motor

Question # 227 (Multiple Choice) Speaking of old, Clara Barton founded

A) PHTLS
B) American Red Cross
C) American Heart Association
D) NHTSA

Question # 228 (Multiple Choice) As we age, our bones become

A) deficient in magnesium
B) high in iron
C) high in potassium
D) deficient in calcium

Question # 229 (Multiple Choice) ACLS defines unstable ventricular tachycardia that needs to be treated as meeting what condition

A) altered mental status
B) chest pain
C) BP < 90 systolic
D) all of the above

Question # 230 (Multiple Choice) Which one of the following findings would most likely cause an significant problem in a geriatric patient

A) mouth breathing
B) hypotension
C) pedal edema
D) lower lobe rales

Question # 231 (Multiple Choice) What is the correct cumulative dose of atropine for bradycardia associated with serious signs and symptoms

A) 0.04 mg/kg
B) 0.4 mg/kg
C) 4.0 mg/kg
D) none of the above

Question # 232 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following is the best definition of hyperventilation

A) respiratory rate of greater than 24 per minute
B) oxygen saturation of 99%
C) tidal volume of greater than 1000cc
D) end tidal C02 < 5% to 6% CO2 (35-45 mmHg)

Question # 233 (Multiple Choice) A 23 year old dancer has collapsed at a club. You find her with no pulse and your monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. You should immediately of treatment would you use initially for the patient with ventricular fibrillation?

A) begin CPR and intubate
B) start an IV and push epinephrine
C) start an IV and push atropine
D) defibrillate at 200 joules

Question # 234 (Multiple Choice) A 43 year old female electrician has been accidentally shocked with an AC current. The arrhythmia you would most likely see from the effects of this is

A) PEA (pulseless electrical activity)
B) ventricular tachycardia
C) asystole
D) ventricular fibrillation

Question # 235 (Multiple Choice) Atropine may be harmful and should not be given to patients with

A) 3rd degree heart blocks with a widened QRS complex
B) sinus rhythms with frequent PJC's
C) sinus tachycardia with hypertension
D) asystole following ventricular fibrillation

Question # 236 (Multiple Choice) Starling's Law refers to

A) cardiac stroke volume
B) alveoli gas exchange
C) peripheral vessel radius
D) baroreceptors

Question # 237 (Multiple Choice) Organisms that cause infection, such as viruses and bacteria, are called:

A) pathogens
B) toxins
C) antigens
D) antibodies

Question # 238 (Multiple Choice) Disposable gloves, eye shields, masks, and gowns are known as:

A) airborne pathogen precautions
B) bloodborne disease precautions.
C) disease prevention equipment
D) personal protective equipment.

Question # 239 (Multiple Choice) A NIOSH-approved HEPA or N-95 respirator is recommended when caring for a patient suspect of having:

A) tuberculosis
B) AIDS
C) hepatitis
D) staphylococcal skin infection

Question # 240 (Multiple Choice) Your first responsibility as an EMT-B is to

A) open the patient's airway
B) keep yourself safe
C) gain access to the patient
D) provide for the patient's safety

Question # 241 (Multiple Choice) The only time(s) when you can release confidential patient information is/are to:

A) inform other health care professionals who need information in order to continue care.
B) report incidents required by state law such as rape or abuse
C) comply with a legal subpoena
D) all of the above

Question # 242 (Multiple Choice) It is important to evaluate scene safety prior to entering the scene because you need to determine:

A) what personal protective equipment you will need
B) the likely mechanism of injury
C) what additional resources may be needed
D) all of the above

Question # 243 (Multiple Choice) You suspect a substantial exposure to your trauma patient's blood. Local reporting requirements will typically ask you to:

A) report this exposure in the run data section of your repor
B) report the incident to the Centers for Disease Contro
C) record this exposure on a special report form
D) describe the incident in the narrative section of your report

Question # 244 (Multiple Choice) External bleeding that presents a danger to you is from an

A) artery
B) vein
C) capillary
D) all of the above

Question # 245 (Multiple Choice) Precautions taken when there is a high probability of blood splatter should include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) gloves
B) protective eyewear
C) masks
D) nose plugs

Question # 246 (Multiple Choice) When managing the patient with soft tissue injuries it is important to always:

A) completely disinfect the wound site
B) apply the PASG to your patient
C) take barrier precautions
D) seal the wound with an occlusive dressing

Question # 247 (Multiple Choice) Geriatric patients have a much higher incidence of cardiac syncope. Patients ___ years of age have a cardiovascular cause of syncope twice the incidence of patients ___ years of age.

A) 45 to 60, 20 to 45
B) 50 to 80, 12 to 45
C) 60 to 90, 15 to 59
D) 80 to 100, 40 to 60

Question # 248 (True/False) Syncope in pediatric patients can be due to breath-holding spells

A) True
B) False

Question # 249 (Multiple Choice) An ECG should be performed on ___ patients with syncope

A) all
B) most
C) few
D) none

Question # 250 (Multiple Choice) Hypoglycemia is associated with a gradual change in mental status which is prolonged and reversed only by an increase in serum glucose. The return to a normal mental state is somewhat ___ than in syncope

A) slower
B) faster
C) there is no difference is return to a normal mental state

Question # 251 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following statements is true?

A) syncope caused by seizures can be differentiated from vasomotor syncope based on tonic- clonic activity and postictal confusion
B) syncope caused by seizures cannot be differentiated from vasomotor syncope as both present with tonic- clonic activity and postictal confusion
C) syncope produced by a seizures will not be preceded with an associated seizure aura

Question # 252 (Multiple Choice) All patients who suffer syncope should have a full set of vitals, pulse, respiration and BP, obtained. What other ' vital sign ' is necessary for the field provider to obtain?

A) cardiac 12 lead
B) blood glucose
C) temperature
D) orthostatic BP

Question # 253 (True/False) Head turning could cause a syncopal episode from carotid sinus hypersensitivity

A) True
B) False

Question # 254 (Multiple Choice) A definitive diagnosis will be made in only approximately__ of the patients presenting to the Emergency Department with syncope.

A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 70%

Question # 255 (True/False) Panic attacks, conversion reactions, or hysteria do NOT cause syncope.

A) True
B) False

Question # 256 (Multiple Choice) The most common central nervous system cause of loss of consciousness is a(n)

A) heat stroke
B) subarachnoid hemorrhage
C) electrical shock
D) seizure

Question # 257 (Multiple Choice) Metabolic causes of syncope include hypoglycemia and hyponatremia. Hypoglycemia and hyponatremia refer to ____and ____

A) decreased blood sugar, decreased blood sodium
B) increased insulin, increased blood potassium
C) decreased blood sugar, decreased blood calcium
D) decreased blood sugar, increased blood sodium

Question # 258 (Multiple Answer) Cardiac syncope can be caused by (check all that apply)

A) asystole, second or third degree heart block
B) sick sinus syndrome or carotid sinus hypersensitivity
C) prolonged QT syndrome or aortic stenosis
D) hypertrophic subaortic stenosis or pulmonary embolus

Question # 259 (Multiple Choice) Your 58 year old patient say he passed out after having a severe and lengthy coughing fit. His syncope would be labeled

A) vasovagal syncope
B) situational syncope
C) orthostatic hypotension
D) vasomotor

Question # 260 (Multiple Choice) Syncope caused by orthostatic hypotension could be caused by

A) acute blood loss
B) vomiting
C) diarrhea
D) all of the above

Question # 261 (Multiple Choice) Vasovagal episodes are often associated with

A) blood loss
B) hypothermia
C) distressing news
D) excitement

Question # 262 (Multiple Choice) Vasomotor syncope best refers to

A) syncope cased by a sudden loss of blood to the brain due to vasoconstriction
B) syncope cased by a sudden loss of blood to the brain due to vasodilation
C) syncope cased by a sudden loss of blood to the brain due to loss of vessel tone
D) syncope cased by a sudden loss of blood to the brain due to vasoconstriction

Question # 263 (True/False) Psychogenic syncope is self correcting in most cases

A) True
B) False

Question # 264 (Multiple Choice) Brief myoclonic jerking may occur with a syncope episode. This is

A) normal
B) abnormal
C) only with cardiac based cases
D) only when drugs are involved

Question # 265 (Multiple Choice) Loss of cerebral blood flow for ___ seconds results in loss of consciousness

A) 3-5
B) 5 - 10
C) 10-15
D) 15-20

Question # 266 (Multiple Choice) One way in which syncope can be defined is

A) gradual loss of consciousness
B) inability to maintain postural tone
C) simple feinting
D) none of the above

Question # 267 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following chemicals should be brushed off before washed off?

A) hydrochloric acid
B) acetic acid
C) sodium hydroxide
D) dry lime

Question # 268 (Multiple Choice) Acid burns to the eyes should be flooded with water for at least __

A) 20 minutes
B) 5 minutes
C) 10 minutes
D) 30 minutes

Question # 269 (Multiple Choice) Chemical burns can be caused by

A) acids
B) bases
C) caustics
D) all of the above

Question # 270 (Multiple Choice) A secondary problem due to a burn from an electrical shock could be

A) fractures
B) seizures
C) irregular heartbeat
D) all of the above

Question # 271 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has been exposed to an unknown chemical which has soaked his clothing. You should immediately flush the patient with:

A) water
B) a neutralizing solution
C) vinegar
D) a baking soda solution

Question # 272 (Multiple Choice) You are caring for a 24-year-old female patient who accidentally spilled an alkaline drain cleaner on her forearm. The cleaner has been washed off but the arm is still painful, red, and blistered. This burn would be classified as

A) partial thickness
B) severe
C) superficial
D) full thickness

Question # 273 (Multiple Choice) Your patient has fallen from a horse and has a fractured lower leg. Since the broken bone has torn through the skin, this fracture is called:

A) closed
B) open
C) simple
D) spinal

Question # 274 (Multiple Choice) An important reason to splint a closed painful, swollen, deformed injury is to:

A) cover any external injuries
B) prevent it from becoming an open injury
C) allow the patient to move the injured extremity without pain
D) make transporting the patient easier and more comfortable

Question # 275 (Multiple Choice) General rules of splinting include

A) attempting to push protruding bones back into place
B) splinting of all injuries individually prior to transport
C) not using extra padding, as this may decrease the effectiveness of the splint
D) checking for pulse, motor function, and sensation before and after splinting

Question # 276 (Multiple Choice) If you have applied a splint properly, it will immobilize the

A) injury site, only
B) adjacent joints and bone ends
C) entire extremity
D) injury site and one joint below

Question # 277 (Multiple Choice) If your patient is a high priority for "load and go" transport, the fastest method of splinting would be securing

A) the injured limb to the torso
B) the injured limb to an uninjured limb
C) the entire body to a spine board
D) each site individually to a rigid splint

Question # 278 (Multiple Choice) Your first priority in treating a patient with a swollen and deformed extremity is:

A) opening and maintaining the airway
B) splinting the swollen, deformed extremities
C) applying direct pressure to open injuries
D) assessing circulation in injured extremities.

Question # 279 (Multiple Choice) Your 35-year-old male patient has fallen while rock climbing. During your assessment you find a deformed right lower leg. The distal extremity is pulseless and the skin is cool and cyanotic. Your emergency treatment for this injury should include

A) splinting the extremity as it is
B) attempting to realign the injured extremity
C) applying a traction splint
D) moving the patient to your ambulance before splinting

Question # 280 (Multiple Choice) Traction splints are specifically designed to splint injuries to the

A) upper arm
B) lower arm
C) upper leg
D) lower leg

Question # 281 (Multiple Choice) Use of a traction splint is contraindicated if your patient also

A) has a knee injury
B) has a back injury
C) has a femur fracture
D) has no distal pulse in the injured extremity

Question # 282 (Multiple Choice) Which of the following splinting devices would NOT be appropriate for the management of a fractured tibia?

A) air inflated splint
B) two rigid board splints
C) traction splint
D) single rigid splint

Question # 283 (Multiple Choice) Your 64-year-old female patient has slipped on the ice and you suspect a pelvic fracture. This type of injury is very serious, because

A) a pelvic injury is very painful
B) internal organs, blood vessels, and nerves may be injured
C) a pelvic injury is difficult to stabilize
D) the patient cannot be log rolled

Question # 284 (Multiple Choice) You may consider using the PASG for splinting injuries to the

A) knee
B) ankle
C) pelvis
D) all of the above

Question # 285 (Multiple Choice) "Splinting someone to death" means:

A) splinting too tightly, compressing blood vessels and nerves
B) splinting too loosely, permitting movement and further tissue damage
C) splinting without first applying traction or realignment, causing further tissue damage
D) spending too much time splinting, neglecting care for life-threatening conditions, and unnecessarily delaying transport

Question # 286 (Multiple Choice) When force is transmitted to the body's internal structures causing internal organs to rupture or bleed internally, or small bone fractures to occur is called a(n):

A) crush injury
B) concussion
C) contusion
D) avulsion

Question # 287 (Multiple Choice) To properly apply a pressure dressing and bandage to an open wound it is important that you:

A) apply a tourniquet to control bleeding
B) replace any dressings that become blood-soaked
C) apply an antiseptic solution to the wound
D) expose the entire wound, cutting away clothing as needed

Question # 288 (Multiple Choice) A 32-year-old female patient has amputated her index finger in a table saw accident. You have bandaged her hand. The best way to transport the amputated finger is by:

A) placing the finger directly on ice
B) wrapping the finger well in an occlusive dressing
C) placing the finger directly in sterile saline
D) d. wrapping the finger in gauze, placing it in a plastic bag, and keeping it cool